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by loosecannons from Everywhere, USA

Last Post 188 days, 20 hours Ago


Albeit sort of juvenile, this case has many ramifications. The question here is whether the word is obscene.==and whether  'obscene' can get you arrested. The lawyer says they would have prevailed if taken forward because the word is used so much and for so many different reasons and causes that it is no longer considered a sexual  word. Is this argument valid?  Have we really gotten to a point in society that certain words have changed meaning?   Does it mean that a word may be 'gross' to one, but if it is in common use, that I have no right to be  embarrassed or offened? If one cannot write a word on a check in the memo line, does that mean one cannot use the word in person as he pays the fine? If he HAD used the word in person would as he paid the fine, would the outcome have been the same?  That is, would they have called the police because they were offended? Does it have anything to do with the fact that it was 'written'  ---rather than  'spoken'    have any bearing on it being 'offensive'. I am  'offended'  most all the days of my life by  something---so  does that mean I can have 'them'  arrested,  or have 'that' taken out? If the word 'offended' one person in the office, and not the other person, would that be grounds for an arrest?===or does it take  an 'entire offensive'  to be good enough for an arrest. What is your opinion on them having this guy arrested? (I just spit on my front side-walk---can my neighbor be 'offended' ---and have me arrested?) ...well,   maybe it has to be on HIS  sidewalk, huh? i had been thinking up until now that we still have a few freedoms...like freedom  of speech as long as you don't hit them...or threathen them...but now I guess that is gone too... ..ridiculous.... and what about if i fartt  in church....can the preacher and congregation be offended... and call in the  security people? ridiculous to the third power...(my opinion)...and I am conservative  too.
see:
http://www.cnn.com/2008/US/01/12/vulgar.check.ap/index.
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raugust read my blog
Mar 3, 2008 | 11:50 AM

First, consider the 1973 Supreme Court Case "Miller v. California," that defined obscenity.

Second, consider that the Holy Bible, the Sacred Scripture authored by God Himself through the pens of His inspired Saints, would be considered too offensive to broadcast on television, and that God's COMMANDMENTS regarding murder, adultery, homosexuality, fornication, and disrespect of parents and neighbors, have already been legislated out of existence. If we were to do what we should do to homosexuals alone, not only would the end result be "offensive" to the BLEEP, but they would consider true Christians to be worse to queers than Nazis were to Jews.

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loosecannons

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Member Since: 10/4/2007